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"it came on the backs of millions (again, including millions of slaves)." If that's the case, how is it that slave owning societies are consistently poorer than non-slave owning societies? The American South was poorer than the American North, the Arab and African worlds remained poor despite extensive slave trading, Britain banned the slave trade in 1807 and it was followed by a century of rapid growth etc. What you're claiming is simply a myth that is asserted and never supported with evidence.

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