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>My argument is that what no one made, everyone owns. ... The praxis for ownership deriving from consent is a world both richer and more equal.

I presume the second part here is meant to be a justification for the first part. But /how/ did everyone get to own what was not made? Does everyone already own Mars? And, to paraphrase Locke, I have to get the consent of /everyone/ before I can use some plot of land? Seems a tad impractical.

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